Baptism for the Dead

     In his defense of the resurrection, Paul writes: “Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead? And why do we stand in jeopardy every hour?” (1 Cor. 15:29-30).¹ What exactly is Paul talking about here? Is he advocating vicarious baptism on behalf of those who have died? Is he alluding to literal baptism in relation to the spiritually dead? Is this a metaphoric baptism of suffering and martyrdom? Were loved ones of deceased Christians getting baptized in hopes of a reunion in the afterlife? While it has been estimated that there are over 200 different interpretations of this passage,² they can’t all be right!

     If we pay close attention to the pronouns used, Paul seems to be pointing out the inconsistencies of the ones arguing against the resurrection. The third person “they” (v. 29) refers back to “some among you [who] say that there is no resurrection of the dead” (v. 12), and it is a prelude to the subsequent observation, “for some do not have this knowledge” (v. 34). Apparently there were some among the Corinthians who were practicing vicarious baptism on behalf of the dead. Although there is no biblical or historical precedent for such a practice, this is the most straightforward reading of the text. Appreciating the fact that we only have one side of the conversation (Paul’s side), this was probably a unique situation in Corinth at the time, of which the apostle and the original audience were aware. Paul is simply noting the inconsistency – why do this if there is no resurrection? “We” (in contrast to “you” the Corinthians and “they” the false teachers) is a pronominal allusion to Paul and his apostolic colleagues (cf. vv. 9, 11, 14, 15); if there is no future hope, then why would teachers of the gospel be risking their lives? (vv. 30-32; cf. 4:9-13).

     Vicarious baptism is never enjoined on followers of Christ. The practice serves no functional purpose, seeing that the fate of those already deceased is unalterable (Luke 16:22-31; Heb. 9:27). Accordingly, as far as the living are concerned, “Awake to righteous …” (1 Cor. 15:34a); “Behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation” (2 Cor. 6:1b).

--Kevin L. Moore

Endnotes:

     ¹ Scripture quotations are from the NKJV.

     ² Ernest Evans, ed. Tertullian’s Treatise on the Resurrection (London: SPCK, 1960): 312.

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“The saints will judge the world …. we are to judge angels”

     What does Paul mean when he writes, “the saints will judge the world …. we are to judge angels” (1 Cor. 6:2-3)? The Corinthians were inconsistent in the extreme. In the case of the immoral brother, they should have judged but took no action at all (1 Cor. 5:1-2). In cases of petty disputes, they should have judged among themselves but they took too much action and went to secular courts (6:1-9). In both cases, they neglected their God-given responsibility to make their own judgments and settle matters among themselves (cf. 5:12; 10:15; 11:13). Paul reminds his readers that the saints [‘sanctified ones’] will judge the world¹ and angels,²  but how? Like “the men of Nineveh” who “will rise up in judgment with this generation and condemn it, because they repented …” (Matt. 12:41); like Noah, who “prepared an ark … by which he condemned the world …” (Heb. 11:7). The saints will judge the world and [fallen] angels indirectly by their lives and teaching in compliance with the divine will.

--Kevin L. Moore

Endnotes:

     ¹ Cf. Rev. 3:21; 20:4; Matt. 19:28; Luke 22:30.

     ² Cf. 1 Pet. 3:22; 2 Pet. 2:4.

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Were the six days of creation geologic ages or literal 24-hour days?

     The day-age theory, espoused by progressive creationists and theistic evolutionists, alleges that each day of the creation account in Genesis 1 represents geologic ages (millions of years) instead of ordinary 24-hour days. Here are six simple reasons to reject this theory in favor of a more straightforward understanding of the text.

1. Whenever the Hebrew word yom (“day”) is preceded by a numeral, it always refers to a solar (24-hour) day (Gen. 1:5, 8, 13, 19, 23, 31; cf. Num. 13:25; 14:33-34; Ex. 20:9-11).

2. The phrase, “So the evening and the morning were the first day” (Gen. 1:5), is used over 100 times in the OT and always refers to a 24-hour day.

3. If “day” in this context refers to geologic ages, then each “day” would be millions of years of continuous darkness followed by millions of years of continuous light.

4. Adam lived through the sixth and seventh days (Gen. 1:26-2:3), but he did not live for geologic ages (Gen. 5:5).

5. The Jews were commanded to work six days and rest one day each week because this was the pattern of creation recorded in the Genesis account (Ex. 20:8-11).

6. If God had wanted to describe creation in six literal 24-hour days, how could he have stated it any clearer?

--Kevin L. Moore

Related Posts: Replinishing the Earth & Ancient Human Remains

Related articles: Greg Gwin's Scientific Dating Methods; R. Sungenis, Reasons to Doubt Justin Taylor; Paul Holland's Age of the Earth; Justin Roger's Hebrew word Yom; Thomas Purifoy, Jr.'s 6-Day Creation, Jeffery P. Tompkins, Population Growth Matches Bible and DNA Clock 

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