Some have concluded from the above text that if there is no law against a practice, then the practice is divinely sanctioned (e.g., infant baptism, mechanical instruments in Christian worship, et al.). However, careful attention to Paul’s argument in the context in which it was given provides a clearer understanding of what is affirmed and what is not affirmed.
The Law Brings Wrath
The “law” that Paul has consistently been referencing in his letter to the Romans is the old Jewish Mosaic legal system, which Christians are not amenable to (Rom. 3:19; 6:14-15) and therefore cannot transgress. “For the law brings wrath” (cf. 1:18; 2:5-12; 5:9), because when the Mosaic law was in force and was violated, it could not extend grace or forgiveness or provide justification. So what does Paul mean when he observes, “where there is no law there is no transgression”?
The term “transgression” [parábasis] (cf. 2:23; 5:14) means “overstepping” (BAGD 611), implying a set standard already in place that can be contravened. There cannot be “transgression” in the technical sense without “law.” Nevertheless, there can certainly be sinful (ungodly, unrighteous) attitudes and behaviors contrary to the divine will and subject to God’s wrath (cf. 1:18-32; 2:12; 3:9, 20, 23; etc.). Comparable expressions include “sin” [hamartía] (cf. 3:9) and its verbal form (cf. 2:12b), “lawless” [anómōs] (cf. 2:12a), and “trespass” [paráptōma] (4:25; 5:15, 16, 17, 18, 20; 11:11-12).
Conclusion:
What does “law” mean if it does not refer to either a positive affirmation or a negative condemnation of a practice? Paul is merely informing the Christians in Rome that they cannot be guilty of transgressing the old Jewish law because Christians are not amenable to it. But since all have sinned (Rom. 3:23), it follows that Rom. 4:15b is a simple concession that everyone is amenable to divine law (cf. 1 Cor. 9:21; note also John 15:22-24).
--Kevin L. Moore
Related Posts: Instruments in Worship, Abraham Believed God (Rom 4:3)
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